Posted by : Unknown Tuesday, September 13, 2005

In the late 1870s, the period after Reconstruction, the government went through a period called Disfranchisement. During Reconstruction, a large number of African Americans were elected to Congress. Even though they were trying to represent their Black and White constituents equally, they were accused of running the government like a minstrel show. White racists attempted to disfranchise African Americans through such methods as the infamous literacy tests and also corrupt politics (i.e. keeping African Americans away from the poll by force or deceit, slipping their ballots into White candidates ballot box thereby forcing them to vote for an opponent, etc.) African Americans were accused of being inept in a governmental context but can this be true when their opposers had to defeat them through illegal means?? I really don't see much difference in what happened during the Disfranchisement Period and what's happening right now in our beloved America. I'm sure that having a 42 percent popularity vote does not entitle you to the office of president. Obviously some corrupt/disfranchisement methods were in play there. The worst part is, the sections of the Constitution that prevent racists from employing methods to keep African Americans away from the polls are not a permanent part of the law. The only thing really protecting our right to vote is an Act called the Voting Rights Act and many of its sections that are key in our protection are due to expire in about 2 years. Much of our current administration is doing nothing in the line of renewing these sections. Do your research people, I don't want you to be surprised if we end up back in slavery. This it was I was talking about in my last blog, we have not made it.

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